Value betting using Pinnacle

[easybet]

Hi guys, so far I thought that value betting ("using" pinnacle) is to find an arb and just don't cover the pinnacle part. i.e. a two way game, with odds in pinnacle 1.81- 2.137 (2% juice)
and you find in a soft 2.35 odds (instead of 2.137) so the set of odds is now 2.35 (soft) and pinnacle 1.81 = 2.25 % arb . so this 2.35 is a great value bet ...

My question is if a soft book has better odds in a particular event/bet than pinnacle but there is not an arb with these odds. i.e same odds like above, 2-way game 2.137 - 1.81 pinnacle odds with 2% juice. and one soft book offers the first bet (2.137) with odds 2.20 . if you try to arbitrage 2.2 and 1.81 you will have -0,7% arb BUT what will happen if you play 2.20 alone (2.137 in pinnacle) ? Is this considered a value bet or not? And stays under the radar or not.

 

[bongobet]

if you take as true the general accepted concept that you have to beat the pinny(sharp) closing line(+margins) to make profit on the long run,

you are correct. it doesnt have to be an arb for that odd to have value. value doesnt come from the arb itself but from the difference between the the odds(ie 2.137 and soft odd)